Jesus is Jehovah in Philemon

Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament: Index

1. INTRODUCTION
Continuing from Jesus is Jehovah in James with this my Jesus is

[Above: Papyrus 87 (Gregory-Aland), fragment of the Apostle Paul's Epistle to Philemon: Wikipedia]

Jehovah in Philemon, being part #10 of my series, "Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament," which is based on my morning `quiet time' study. See the first in this series, Jesus is Jehovah in Matthew, for further details about this series.

Because Philemon is such a short letter, it does not have the full range of evidence that Jesus of the New Testament is Jehovah (Heb. Yahweh) of the Old Testament, come in the flesh. Nevertheless, it does contain some evidence that Jesus is Jehovah and also for completeness I am including it in this series. Quote extracts are linked to fuller quotes towards the end of this post.

2. JESUS HAS NAMES AND TITLES OF JEHOVAH
Lord. Jesus is "the Lord Jesus Christ" (Phm 1:3) and "our Lord Jesus Christ" (Phm 1:25). He is "the Lord Jesus" (Phm 1:5); "the Lord" (Phm 1:16,20). And again, "Lord" (Gk. kurios) is the word used nearly 7,000 times in the Greek Old Testament (The Septuagint or LXX) to translate Heb. YHWH (Yahweh):

"JESUS' IDENTITY WITH YAHWEH/JEHOVAH The NT attributes to Jesus many of the perfections of Yahweh (or, Jehovah), the creator/redeemer God of the OT. There are seven main points of identity. God's name When the OT was translated into Greek in the 2nd and 3rd centuries BC (the Septuagint), the sacred name of God, YHWH, usually rendered Yahweh or Jehovah, was translated by the Greek word Kyrios (Lord); there are approaching 7,000 instances of this. This sacred and exalted title was attributed directly to Jesus (Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 12:3; Phil. 2:11; etc., cf. also Lord of lords, 1 Tim. 6:15; Rev. 17:14; 19:16). Indeed the confession Jesus is Lord is probably the earliest confession of faith (Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 12:3; 2 Cor. 4:5). On several occasions NT writers apply OT passages concerning Yahweh directly to Jesus (Acts 2:34f.; Rom. 8:34; Heb. 10:12f.; 1 Pet. 3:22 apply Ps. 110:1. Rom. 10:13 applies Joel 2:32. Phil. 2:9-11 applies Is. 45:23. Jn. 12:41 applies Is. 6:10. Eph. 4:8 applies Ps. 68:18). These passages clearly identify Jesus with Yahweh. Another link is provided by self-designations of God appropriated by Jesus or referred to him. Supremely significant is the I AM (Ex. 3:14; cf. Jn. 8:58; 6:35; 8:12,24; 11:25; 14:6; 18:5f.; Mk. 14:62). Others are bridegroom (Is. 62:5; Je. 2:2; Ezk. 16:8; cf. Mk. 2:19f.; Jn. 3:29; 2 Cor. 11:2; Rev. 19:7); shepherd (Pss. 23:1; 80:1; Is. 40:11; Ezk. 34:15; cf. Jn. 10:11-16; Heb. 13:10; 1 Pet. 2:25; 5:4); the first and the last (Is. 44:6; 48:12; cf. Rev. 2:8; 22:13). (Milne, B., 1982, "Know the Truth: A Handbook of Christian Belief," Inter-Varsity Press: Leicester UK, Fifth printing, 1988, pp.129-130. Emphasis original).

So when Paul and the other New Testament writers called Jesus, "the Lord," or "the Lord Jesus Christ," they meant "Jehovah" or "Jehovah Jesus Christ":

"But there was a far stronger reason for the application of the Greek term `Lord' to Jesus ... The word `Lord' is used by the Septuagint to translate the `Jahwe' of the Hebrew test. .... And the fact is of capital importance. For it was among the readers of the Septuagint that Christianity first made its way. The Septuagint was the Bible of the Jewish synagogues, and in the synagogues the reading of it was heard not only by Jews but also by hosts of Gentiles, the `God-fearers' of the Book of Acts. It was with the `God-fearers' that the Gentile mission began. ... Thus when the Christian missionaries used the word `Lord' of Jesus, their hearers knew at once what they meant. They knew at once that Jesus occupied a place which is occupied only by God. For the word `Lord' is used countless times in the Greek scriptures as the holiest name of the covenant God of Israel, and these passages were applied freely to Jesus." (Machen, J.G., 1925, "The Origin of Paul's Religion," pp.307-308).

3. OLD TESTAMENT PASSAGES ABOUT JEHOVAH ARE APPLIED TO JESUS
There are no Old Testament passages quoted in Philemon.

4. JESUS HAS ATTRIBUTES OF JEHOVAH
There are no direct statements of Jesus' attributes in Philemon.

5. JESUS DOES WORKS OF JEHOVAH
Grace and peace. Jesus together with the Father is the giver of grace and peace:"Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ."(Phm 1:3; Rom 1:7; 1Cor 1:3; 2Cor 1:2; Eph 1:2; Php 1:2. See also 2Th 1:2; Eph 6:23; 1Th 1:1; 2Th 1:1):

"The phrase `God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ,' present in Paul's salutations, thanksgivings, and other doxological passages, indicates a functional identity between the Father and the Lord. They are jointly the source of grace and peace" (Capes, D.B., 1992, "Old Testament Yahweh Texts in Paul's Christology," pp.62-64, 68).

"[Gal 1:3] This grace and peace come from God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ ... the main theological point is the close association of Christ with God. Indeed, the use of the word Kyrios, 'Lord', as a title of Christ would in itself be sufficient to assure this. Much study has been devoted to this Greek word, the one chosen by the early translators into Greek of the Hebrew Bible to stand for the divine name YHWH.... Kyrios varied in meaning ... to the full sense of 'Lord', in confession of the deity of Christ. When the early Christians used the phrase, 'Jesus is Lord' [Rom 10:9; 1Cor 12:3] ...they cannot have meant less than this." (Cole, R.A., 1989, "The Letter of Paul to the Galatians:," p.70. Emphasis original).

6. JESUS RECEIVES HONOUR AND WORSHIP DUE TO JEHOVAH
Equal with the Father. That Jesus is mentioned in the same breath as the Father, "Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ." (Phm 1:3; Rom 1:7; 1Cor 1:3; 2Cor 1:2; Eph 1:2; Php 1:2; 2Th 1:2; Eph 6:23; 1Th 1:1; 2Th 1:1), is evidence of His equal status with the Father:

"[1Th 1:1] God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. The combination of both terms (a. God the Father, b. the Lord Jesus Christ) after one preposition (in; that is grounded in) would seem to indicate that the two are entirely co-ordinate, that is, that the reference is to the first and to the second person of the Holy Trinity. ... In referring to the second person the full name is used here: the Lord Jesus Christ. In the LXX the name Lord (kurios) translates Jehovah, the God of Israel. It is more often the rendering of Jehovah than of anything else. ... Now the Jews were strict monotheists. Yet Paul, though himself a Jew, again and again gives to Jesus the title Lord. This shows that, in the thinking of the apostle, Jesus is just as fully divine as is God the Father: one and the same essence is possessed by the Father and by the Son (also by the Spirit, II Cor. 13:14)." (Hendriksen, W., 1955, "1 & 2 Thessalonians," pp.40-41. Emphasis original).

"[1Th 1:1] ... in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ ... It is striking (a) that he speaks of the Father and the Lord in one breath (no-one else could be linked with the Father in this way), (b) that he joins the two under one preposition in, and (c) that he expresses the closeness of the tie linking the Thessalonians with their God in terms of Christ as well as the Father. 'The association could hardly be closer' ... This high view of Jesus is continued with the use of Lord and Christ. Lord was used in LXX as the translation of the divine name and it was commonly used of deity in other religions ... From very early times Jesus was seen to have the highest place." (Morris, L.L., 1984, "The Epistles of Paul to the Thessalonians," p.41).

"[1Th 1:1] In God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ ... Paul ... dares also to apply kurios (Lord) to `Jesus Christ,' the word appropriated by Claudius (Dominus, Kurios) and other emperors in the emperor-worship, and also common in the Septuagint for God as in Psa. 32:1f. (quoted by Paul in Rom. 4:8). Paul uses Kurios of God (I Cor. 3:5) or of Jesus Christ as here. ... And here he places `the Lord Jesus Christ' in the same category and on the same plane with `God the father.'" (Robertson, A.T., 1931, "Word Pictures in the New Testament: Volume IV: The Epistles of Paul," p.6. Emphasis original).

"[2Th 1:2] From God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ ... Note absence of article both after en and apo, though both God and Lord Jesus Christ are definite. In both cases Jesus Christ is put on a par with God, though not identical." (Robertson, 1931, p.41. Emphasis original).

7. OBJECTIONS TO JESUS BEING JEHOVAH
I am not aware of any verses in Philemon that are, or even could be, cited as objections to Jesus being Jehovah, especially when it is borne in mind:

"That the Lord Jesus Christ is revealed in the New Testament as being Jehovah (Heb. Yahweh) of the Old Testament come in the flesh, does not preclude the other two Persons of the Holy Trinity (Mt 28:19; 2Cor 13:14; 1Pet 1:2): the Father (Dt 32:6; Isa 63:16; 64:8; Mal 1:6) and the Holy Spirit (Lk 4:18 = Isa 61:1; Acts 5:3-4,9; 2Cor 3:17), also being, as revealed in the New Testament, Jehovah: the one Triune God." (Jones, S.E., "Jesus is Jehovah in the New Testament: Index," January 11, 2009).

8. CONCLUSION
Since there are in Philemon no known objections to Jesus being Jehovah, and there is evidence (see above) that Jesus is Jehovah, then Jesus is Jehovah in Philemon!

The quotes below are hyperlinked from references above. The previous (ninth) post in this series was "Jesus is Jehovah in James" and the next (eleventh) post is "Jesus is Jehovah in Colossians."

Stephen E. Jones.
My other blogs: CreationEvolutionDesign & The Shroud of Turin

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"God, the Father, and the Lord. Jesus Christ Paul's letters generally followed the literary patterns of that day. ... Paul followed contemporary epistolary practice by including certain stereotyped forms in his introductory formulae, thanksgivings, and farewells. In these sections he often utilized the formula, `God the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,' or a variation of it. ... Thus, his typical salutation read: `Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ' ... Paul designated both God the Father and the Lord Jesus as dispensers of grace and peace to the Church. ... God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ bring these blessings into men's lives by faith. They are unified in function. Such a connection is possible only if God and the Lord reside at the same level in Paul's thought ... One final factor needs to be mentioned. The phrase `God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ,' present in Paul's salutations, thanksgivings, and other doxological passages, indicates a functional identity between the Father and the Lord. They are jointly the source of grace and peace. Praise, thanksgiving, and blessing belong to them." (Capes, D.B., 1992, "Old Testament Yahweh Texts in Paul's Christology," J.C.B. Mohr: Tübingen, Germany, pp.62-64, 68).

"[Gal 1:3] This grace and peace come from God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ. It is probable that by the common construction known as chiasmus (which could be translated as an 'x-shaped' construction), the source of grace is seen as Christ, and the source of peace as God the Father. Again, however, the main theological point is the close association of Christ with God. Indeed, the use of the word Kyrios, 'Lord', as a title of Christ would in itself be sufficient to assure this. Much study has been devoted to this Greek word, the one chosen by the early translators into Greek of the Hebrew Bible to stand for the divine name YHWH, which might not be pronounced by the pious Jew, and for which the Hebrew adonai, 'my Lord', had already been substituted. Kyrios varied in meaning from the polite 'sir', used in formal address to a stranger, to the full sense of 'Lord', in confession of the deity of Christ. When the early Christians used the phrase, 'Jesus is Lord' [Rom 10:9; 1Cor 12:3], as a baptismal confession, they cannot have meant less than this." (Cole, R.A., 1989, "The Letter of Paul to the Galatians: An Introduction and Commentary," The Tyndale New Testament commentaries, [1965], Inter-Varsity Press Leicester: UK, Second edition, p.70).

"[1Th 1:1] God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. The combination of both terms (a. God the Father, b. the Lord Jesus Christ) after one preposition (in; that is grounded in) would seem to indicate that the two are entirely co-ordinate, that is, that the reference is to the first and to the second person of the Holy Trinity. Note also the trinitarian character of verses 3-5. Hence, the third person (Holy Spirit), mentioned in verse 5, is implied already in verse 1. Paul often mentions the three together in series of closely connected passages (II Thess. 2:13, 14; I Cor. 12:4-6; II Cor. 13:14; Eph. 2:18; 3:2-5; 3:14-17; 4:4-6; 5:18-20). In referring to the second person the full name is used here: the Lord Jesus Christ. In the LXX the name Lord (kurios) translates Jehovah, the God of Israel. It is more often the rendering of Jehovah than of anything else. (At times it is the equivalent of Adon, Adonai, Baal, etc.) Now the Jews were strict monotheists. Yet Paul, though himself a Jew, again and again gives to Jesus the title Lord. This shows that, in the thinking of the apostle, Jesus is just as fully divine as is God the Father: one and the same essence is possessed by the Father and by the Son (also by the Spirit, II Cor. 13:14)." (Hendriksen, W., 1955, "1 & 2 Thessalonians," New Testament Commentary, Banner of Truth: Edinburgh UK, British edition, 1972, pp.40-41. Emphasis original).

"But there was a far stronger reason for the application of the Greek term `Lord' to Jesus than that which was found in its general currency among Greek-speaking peoples. The religious use of the term was not limited to the pagan cults, but appears also, and if anything even more firmly established, in the Greek Old Testament. The word `Lord' is used by the Septuagint to translate the `Jahwe' of the Hebrew test. It would be quite irrelevant to discuss the reasons which governed the translators in their choice of this particular word. No doubt some word for `Lord' was required by the associations which had already clustered around the Hebrew word. And various reasons may be suggested for the choice of `kyrios' rather than some other Greek word meaning `lord' [As, for example, despotes] Possibly the root meaning of `kyrios' better expressed the idea which was intended; perhaps, also, a religious meaning had already been attached to `kyrios,' which the other words did not possess. At any rate, whatever may have been the reason, `kyrios' was the word which was chosen. And the fact is of capital importance. For it was among the readers of the Septuagint that Christianity first made its way. The Septuagint was the Bible of the Jewish synagogues, and in the synagogues the reading of it was heard not only by Jews but also by hosts of Gentiles, the `God-fearers' of the Book of Acts. It was with the `God-fearers' that the Gentile mission began. And even where there were Gentile converts who had not passed at all through the school of the synagogue in the very earliest period perhaps such converts were few-even then the Septuagint was at once used in their instruction. Thus when the Christian missionaries used the word `Lord' of Jesus, their hearers knew at once what they meant. They knew at once that Jesus occupied a place which is occupied only by God. For the word `Lord' is used countless times in the Greek scriptures as the holiest name of the covenant God of Israel, and these passages were applied freely to Jesus." (Machen, J.G., 1925, "The Origin of Paul's Religion: The James Sprunt Lectures Delivered at Union Theological Seminary in Virginia," Eerdmans: Grand Rapids MI, Reprinted, 1965, pp.307-308).

"[1Th 1:1] Also peculiar to these Epistles is the phrase in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (Paul usually says 'in Christ'). It is striking (a) that he speaks of the Father and the Lord in one breath (no-one else could be linked with the Father in this way), (b) that he joins the two under one preposition in, and (c) that he expresses the closeness of the tie linking the Thessalonians with their God in terms of Christ as well as the Father. 'The association could hardly be closer' (Ward). This high view of Jesus is continued with the use of Lord and Christ. Lord was used in LXX as the translation of the divine name and it was commonly used of deity in other religions (as well as having less significant uses). It points to a very high place. Christ means 'anointed' and is equivalent to 'Messiah'. And all this in a letter written only about twenty years after the crucifixion. From very early times Jesus was seen to have the highest place." (Morris, L.L., 1984, "The Epistles of Paul to the Thessalonians: An Introduction and Commentary," Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, [1956], Inter-Varsity Press: Leicester UK, Second Edition, p.41).

"[1Th 1:1] In God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (en theoi patri kai kurioi Jesou Christoi). This church is grounded in (en, with the locative case) and exists in the sphere and power of God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. No article in the Greek, for both theoi patri and kurioi Jesou Christoi are treated as proper names. In the very beginning of this first Epistle of Paul we meet his Christology. He at once uses the full title, `Lord Jesus Christ,' with all the theological content of each word. The name `Jesus' (Saviour, Matt. 1:21) he knew, as the `Jesus of history,' the personal name of the Man of Galilee, whom he had once persecuted (Acts 9:5), but whom he at once, after his conversion, proclaimed to be `the Messiah,' (ho Christos, Acts 9:22). This position Paul never changed. In the great sermon at Antioch in Pisidia which Luke has preserved (Acts 13:23) Paul proved that God fulfilled his promise to Israel by raising up `Jesus as Saviour' (sotera Iesoun). Now Paul follows the Christian custom by adding Christos (verbal from chrio, to anoint) as a proper name to Jesus (Jesus Christ) as later he will often say `Christ Jesus' (Col. 1:1). And he dares also to apply kurios (Lord) to `Jesus Christ,' the word appropriated by Claudius (Dominus, Kurios) and other emperors in the emperor-worship, and also common in the Septuagint for God as in Psa. 32:1f. (quoted by Paul in Rom. 4:8). Paul uses Kurios of God (I Cor. 3:5) or of Jesus Christ as here. In fact, he more frequently applies it to Christ when not quoting the Old Testament as in Rom. 4:8. And here he places `the Lord Jesus Christ' in the same category and on the same plane with `God the father.' There will be growth in Paul's Christology and he will never attain all the knowledge of Christ for which he longs (Phil. 3:10-12), but it is patent that here in his first Epistle there is no `reduced Christ' for Paul. He took Jesus as `Lord' when he surrendered to Jesus on the Damascus Road: `And I said, What shall I do, Lord? And the Lord said to me' (Acts 22:10). It is impossible to understand Paul without seeing clearly this first and final stand for the Lord Jesus Christ. Paul did not get this view of Jesus from current views of Mithra or of Isis or any other alien faith. The Risen Christ became at once for Paul the Lord of his life." (Robertson, A.T., 1931, "Word Pictures in the New Testament: Volume IV: The Epistles of Paul," Broadman Press: Nashville TN, p.6. Emphasis original).

"[2Th 1:2] From God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ (apo theou patros kai Kuriou lesou Christou). ... Note absence of article both after en and apo, though both God and Lord Jesus Christ are definite. In both cases Jesus Christ is put on a par with God, though not identical. See on I Thess. 1:1 for discussion of words, but note difference between en, in the sphere of, by the power of, and apo, from, as the fountain head and source of grace and peace." (Robertson, 1931, p.41. Emphasis original).